supersport
New member
And what about western blot? If your testing methods are so accurate using the dilutions you posted why is there not a 100% accuracy rate? Just curious-not trying to be a smart ass.
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einstein1905 said:A positive will turn into a negative at various dilutions depending on how high of a viral titer the person has.
Okay, now this is what I am talking about concerning the validity of the antibody testing. I have read some data put forward by an MD at a large hospital in NYC that did some testing of his own-because he felt the dilution ratio in HIV testing was extremely high in regard to testing for Epstein Barr, CMV, etc. Actually, a good proportion of serologic tests require no dilution. I am going strictly off memory here-my library is at home-CMV and EB require a dilution of 1:10 to1:20.
What is interesting is his HIV testing protocol using ELISA called for a dilution ratio of 1:400 or so. He felt that was very high-so he tested over 100 samples of blood-including his own-at 1:400 there were no positives. However at 1:1 all the samples were positive. He wrote that this means-either one or all of these are true-
1) The test is not specific for HIV And/or
2) everyone has different levels of hiv infection and/or
3) Everyone has HIV antibodies
So the degree of dilution is what actually determines if one is antibody positive or negative-or how high the persons viral titer is determines hiv antibody status.
His test kit was from Abbot Labs-whether that makes a difference or not I do not know. I am curious as to what you make of this.
supersport said:einstein1905 said:A positive will turn into a negative at various dilutions depending on how high of a viral titer the person has.
Okay, now this is what I am talking about concerning the validity of the antibody testing. I have read some data put forward by an MD at a large hospital in NYC that did some testing of his own-because he felt the dilution ratio in HIV testing was extremely high in regard to testing for Epstein Barr, CMV, etc. Actually, a good proportion of serologic tests require no dilution. I am going strictly off memory here-my library is at home-CMV and EB require a dilution of 1:10 to1:20.
What is interesting is his HIV testing protocol using ELISA called for a dilution ratio of 1:400 or so. He felt that was very high-so he tested over 100 samples of blood-including his own-at 1:400 there were no positives. However at 1:1 all the samples were positive. He wrote that this means-either one or all of these are true-
1) The test is not specific for HIV And/or
2) everyone has different levels of hiv infection and/or
3) Everyone has HIV antibodies
So the degree of dilution is what actually determines if one is antibody positive or negative-or how high the persons viral titer is determines hiv antibody status.
His test kit was from Abbot Labs-whether that makes a difference or not I do not know. I am curious as to what you make of this.
I agree that if he got all positives at no dilution, then his three assumptions could very well be true. However, if he did get all positives, that kit is flawed. In a research setting, the PE p24 kit is it. You have to understand that the reason for the range of dilutions is for accuracy of quantification. Each positive signal, no matter the dilution, will be input into the equation for the 4 parameter standard curve line and then multiplied by its dilution factor to yield a pg/mL quantity. You know the test is accurate when this quantity is consistent at the various dilutions for which you get a positive signal. Also, another reason for the large range of dilutions is that the ELISA plate reader will only read signal (Absorbance) with in a certain acceptable range. Using serial dilutions will ensure that, if there is a positive signal, at least one of the dilutions will fall withing the optimal range for reading accurately (usually 2 or 3 dilutions will).
I can't vouch for the Abbott labs kit, but read the materials and methods of any recent HIV paper using ELISAs, and you'll see they use the PE kit.
supersport said:So -in the serum sample that you have tested that you are sure are negative-one's of yours and your co-workers (I am using you and them because you get tested frequently so you know you are or at least have been antibody neg)-at the lower dilutions-by low I mean 1:1 or 1:5-are they all positive or is their a mix of pos and neg?
supersport said:Okay...this is conflicting with the research that I read from the doc in NYC that I posted previously. I have made email contact with him and I did write about your testing results. I am hoping for a response from him in the next few days-I am sure he is busy as he does travel internationally and goes to and participates in symposiums nationwide and in fact world wide. He did email me last night-and I emailed him this afternoon with some questions about the results you are finding. So while I wait (patiently-LOL) i do have some questions for you.
In the HIV positive patients you see I am curious about the percentage of CD-4 cells that are infected by HIV. I know that each patient is somewhat different-please feel free to use a "generalization" to encompass the majority of your findings. I am interested in some figures for patients that are positive that are asymptomatic, patients that meet criteria to be diagnosed as having "AIDS", and patients that are moribund, or end stage AIDS. I am sure that as AIDS progresses that the percentage of infected cells rise (in most cases)-but if you can give me some "average " figures to the best of your ability I would appreciate the info. I know that each patients cell counts and viral loads change daily and that there is sometimes a fairly large increase or decrease in patients numbers between each testing. If you could provide the figures in numbers such as 30 infected cells in 100 CD-4 cells, 15 infected cells per 100 CD-4 cells , and so on.
Thanks man-SS
thatdguy said:so I guess this isn't about MyoGro anymore.. it's an HIV-knowledge thread?
This is a great opportunity to document results then.thatdguy said:so.. are you trying to disprove the validity of the studies on MyoGro or on the MGF (Mechano Growth Factor???)
Is there any concrete human data that either of these work? I just started taking MyoGro myself...
thatdguy said:so.. are you trying to disprove the validity of the studies on MyoGro or on the MGF (Mechano Growth Factor???)
Is there any concrete human data that either of these work? I just started taking MyoGro myself...
einstein1905 said:The Perkin Elmer p24 ELISA kit is the standard in most all research applications. To be honest, I'm not sure what they use for the clinical screens. I assume it's the same PE kit, being that's it's considered the best. A positive will turn into a negative at various dilutions depending on how high of a viral titer the person has. The curve generated by the standard is a 4 parameter curve i.e. a sigmoidal turning into another sigmoid. There isn't a linear proportionality between dilution and signal.